Home

    Free FAA Private Pilot Practice Test Questions

    15 sample questions in the style of the real written test — with the answer and a short explanation for each.

    What the written test actually looks like

    The FAA Private Pilot Airman Knowledge Test is 60 multiple-choice questions with three answer options each. You get 2 hours 30 minutes, and you need 70% to pass. It's taken at an approved testing center, and your passing result is good for 24 calendar months — which is why most students knock it out early in training rather than the week before the checkride.

    The questions below cover the same subject areas the test draws from: Aerodynamics, Airspace, Navigation, Regulations, Weather, Weight & Balance. They're written in the same style as real test questions, so the language should start to feel familiar. Expand any question to see the four options, which one is correct, and why.

    Sample questions

    1.Which problem is ground effect most likely to cause on takeoff?
    • A.Lifting off before the airplane has reached a safe flying speedcorrect
    • B.A sudden increase in induced drag
    • C.A sudden increase in stall speed
    • D.Loss of directional control

    Why: Within about one wingspan of the surface the wing makes lift with much less drag than normal, so the airplane can feel ready to fly before it really is. Pull it off early and you climb into higher drag with too little speed, and it can sink back down. Wait for the recommended liftoff speed. (PHAK Ch. 5, Ground Effect.)

    Topic: Aerodynamics

    2.The angle of attack at which a given wing stalls
    • A.is the same no matter what the airplane weighscorrect
    • B.gets larger as weight increases
    • C.gets smaller as altitude increases
    • D.changes with airspeed

    Why: A wing always quits flying at the same critical angle of attack. Weight, bank, and airspeed change the speed at which you reach that angle, but not the angle itself. That is why you can stall at any airspeed and any attitude. (PHAK Ch. 5, Stalls.)

    Topic: Aerodynamics

    3.What actually makes an airplane turn?
    • A.The horizontal component of liftcorrect
    • B.Rudder pressure
    • C.The vertical component of lift
    • D.Centrifugal force

    Why: Banking tips the lift vector so part of it points toward the inside of the turn, and that sideways pull is what curves your flight path. The rudder only keeps the turn coordinated; it does not turn the airplane. (PHAK Ch. 5, Turns.)

    Topic: Aerodynamics

    4.During the day in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or less, the minimum flight visibility is
    • A.1 statute mile, remaining clear of cloudscorrect
    • B.3 statute miles
    • C.1/2 statute mile
    • D.2 statute miles

    Why: Class G is uncontrolled, so the rules are the loosest anywhere: by day, down low, you need 1 statute mile of visibility and you simply have to stay out of the clouds. At night those same altitudes require 3 miles and standard cloud clearances. (14 CFR 91.155(a) and (b).)

    Topic: Airspace

    5.Class D airspace normally extends from the surface up to and including
    • A.2,500 feet above the airport elevationcorrect
    • B.4,000 feet AGL
    • C.1,200 feet AGL
    • D.10,000 feet MSL

    Why: Class D is a short column of airspace around a towered field, roughly 2,500 feet tall measured above the airport, but the ceiling is charted in MSL inside a dashed blue box. Do the math before you skim over the top. (AIM 3-2-5.)

    Topic: Airspace

    6.Before entering which airspace must two-way radio communication be established with the controlling ATC facility?
    • A.Class Ccorrect
    • B.Class G
    • C.Class E below 10,000 feet MSL
    • D.A military operations area

    Why: Class B, C, and D all require radio contact before you enter, and 'established' means the controller answered using your call sign without telling you to stay out. Class B goes further and requires an explicit clearance to enter. (14 CFR 91.129, 91.130.)

    Topic: Airspace

    Try the full interactive quiz

    Same questions, but you answer them one at a time and get scored — with streaks, a running total, and a leaderboard by callsign. Free to start.

    Start the quiz

    More sample questions

    7.True course measured on a chart, corrected for magnetic variation, gives you
    • A.magnetic coursecorrect
    • B.true heading
    • C.compass heading
    • D.magnetic bearing

    Why: Work through it in order: true course plus or minus variation gives magnetic course; apply the wind correction angle to get magnetic heading; then apply the compass deviation card to get compass heading. Variation fixes the difference between true north and magnetic north. (PHAK Ch. 16, Dead Reckoning.)

    Topic: Navigation

    8.To carry passengers, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and landings in the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same
    • A.category, class, and type if a type rating is requiredcorrect
    • B.make and model
    • C.category only
    • D.class only

    Why: Passenger currency is separate from your flight review. In the last 90 days you need three takeoffs and three landings in the same category and class (and type, if the airplane requires a type rating). In a tailwheel airplane those landings must be to a full stop. (14 CFR 61.57(a).)

    Topic: Regulations

    9.Aerobatic flight is prohibited when flight visibility is less than
    • A.3 statute milescorrect
    • B.1 statute mile
    • C.5 statute miles
    • D.2 statute miles

    Why: Aerobatics need room to see and be seen, so the rule sets a hard floor: at least 3 statute miles of flight visibility and no lower than 1,500 feet above the surface. It is also prohibited over congested areas, open-air assemblies, and within certain airspace. (14 CFR 91.303.)

    Topic: Regulations

    10.Below 10,000 feet MSL, the maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft is
    • A.250 knotscorrect
    • B.200 knots
    • C.288 knots
    • D.230 knots

    Why: The speed limit exists so everyone has time to see and avoid down low where the traffic is: 250 knots indicated below 10,000 feet MSL. Tighter limits apply near Class B and C — 200 knots under a Class B shelf or in the airspace beneath it, and within 4 NM of a Class C or D primary airport at or below 2,500 feet AGL. (14 CFR 91.117.)

    Topic: Regulations

    11.The most common cause of relative humidity reaching nearly 100 percent is
    • A.the air cooling to its dewpointcorrect
    • B.rain adding moisture to the air
    • C.the air being warmed
    • D.a drop in atmospheric pressure

    Why: Warm air can hold more water vapor than cold air. Usually the amount of moisture is not what changes — the temperature is. As air cools toward its dewpoint the same moisture becomes 'full,' relative humidity climbs to 100 percent, and fog or cloud forms. (AC 00-6, Moisture.)

    Topic: Weather

    12.Standing lenticular altocumulus clouds are a sign of
    • A.very strong turbulencecorrect
    • B.smooth air aloft
    • C.an approaching warm front
    • D.widespread heavy icing

    Why: Those smooth, lens-shaped clouds sitting motionless over or downwind of mountains mark the crests of mountain waves. They look calm but the air moving through them is violent, with severe turbulence and powerful up and down drafts. Give them a wide berth. (AC 00-6, Mountain Wave.)

    Topic: Weather

    13.Structural icing in flight requires
    • A.visible moisture and an aircraft surface temperature at or below freezingcorrect
    • B.stable air and high humidity
    • C.an outside air temperature below freezing only
    • D.precipitation and turbulence

    Why: You need both ingredients at once: visible moisture, meaning clouds or rain, and a skin temperature at or below 0 °C. Cold clear air will not ice you up, and warm clouds will not either. If you pick up ice, change altitude or temperature — climb, descend, or turn back. (AC 00-6, Icing.)

    Topic: Weather

    14.An airplane is 90 pounds over maximum gross weight. If fuel weighs 6 pounds per gallon, how much fuel must be drained?
    • A.15 gallonscorrect
    • B.10 gallons
    • C.18 gallons
    • D.12 gallons

    Why: Divide the excess weight by the weight of one gallon: 90 pounds divided by 6 pounds per gallon equals 15 gallons. Remember that draining fuel also shortens your range and shifts the CG, so recheck both before you fly. (PHAK Ch. 10.)

    Topic: Weight & Balance

    15.The moment of an item of useful load is found by
    • A.multiplying its weight by its armcorrect
    • B.dividing its weight by its arm
    • C.adding its weight and its arm
    • D.dividing its arm by its weight

    Why: Moment is simply weight times arm — how heavy something is multiplied by how far it sits from the datum. Add up all the moments, divide by total weight, and you have the CG. (PHAK Ch. 10, Weight and Balance.)

    Topic: Weight & Balance

    How to study these

    • Read the explanation even when you guessed right — the reason matters more than the answer.
    • Work in short sessions, several days a week. Repetition beats cramming here.
    • Take the written test early. Your pass is valid for 24 calendar months.
    • Budget the $175 test fee into your plan — see the full cost breakdown.
    Study it like a game, not a textbook

    Called to Fly has a free sample deck, a streak counter that rewards showing up daily, and a callsign leaderboard so you can see where you stand. When you're serious about passing, the premium full question bank picks up where the sample stops.

    Create a free account

    These are study questions written in the style of the FAA Private Pilot Airman Knowledge Test. They are not actual FAA test questions and are not official regulatory guidance. Always verify against current FAA publications and 14 CFR.